From: David A Bielby (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Nov 29 1999 - 00:48:14 EST
In my further study of Matthew 4:17 some questions are coming up. I'm
wondering what the force of the Perfect tense in the word HNGIKE in Mt
3:2, 4:17 is, and how that impacts the rest of the sentence? Why
wouldn't Matthew use the Aorist here? What are the implications of the
Perfect Active Indicative syntactically? It seems to me that Jesus may
be saying here that the kingdom has fully come near...or completely
arrived. Is this a correct reading? Maybe He's saying: Because the
kingdom of heaven is 'right here in full measure or presence you must
Also, why can't the phrase TWN OURANWN be translated as a plural?
(I've always wondered about this phrase which appears all over the place)
So, can this phrase mean: the dominion/kingdom of the heavens has
Does the sentence communicate a causal relationship between the dominion
of heaven coming near and the ability of one to obey the imperative
Does this imply the Kingdom's nearness has an empowering potential for
the hearers to obey?
Thanks for the input.
Thirsty for more of Jesus...
Vineyard Christian Fellowship
Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
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