From: RobertP (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Nov 25 1999 - 20:26:54 EST
Thank You very much for Yours answer to the question about hapax
legomena in the Letter of Collosians. Yours answer encouraged me to put
other question, which is connected with other topic.
But at first I want to present myself.
My name is Robert and I'm 25 years old. I'm geologist (esp.
mineralogy&petrology) and I'm very interesting in natural science and
Bible. I was studing optional classial greek on Faculty of Classical
Filology at the Wroclaw University (Poland).
I'm Christian and with my friends I'm dealing with different topics
connected with the Bible: languages, history, dating, teology and so.
I'm ready to correspond with somebody who thinks deep about
I would like to take part in this forum activly and I have the following
How to understand expression from 1 Cor. 7,1 KALON ANTHRWPOU...?
1. KALON it is neutral gendre and it should be translated as The Good (
a good thing) or it is so like in classical poetry where KALON is used
in the meanning of adverb KALWS (well). For example I read that Homer
uses KALWS very seldom (Il.18,570; Od. 1,155) and KALON in the meanning
of KALWS very often.
2. Why in this sentence there are'nt ESTIN?
3. I suppose that this construction KALON ANTHRWPOU is often used in
classical greek but I don't now where? My teacherin said that Greeks
spoke in such sublimy way, f. ex. in such sentence: It is well for me
die then live (f.ex LXX Jon.4,8)
Couldn't be so that this expressions is only typical for greeks ways of
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