Date: Tue Jan 04 2000 - 14:56:57 EST
In a message dated 1/4/2000 12:45:22 PM Central Daylight Time,
It would be one thing to put in a footnote for Mt 4:4 a translation of the
Hebrew text of Deuteronomy 8:3 which uses the term "Yahweh" (as the NJB
translates the Hebrew). But to place the term "Yahweh" into Matthew's text
at Mt 4:4 appears unconscionable. One is NO LONGER translating, rather one
is doing very speculative historical reconstruction. Even if we knew for a
fact that Jesus spoke Aramaic or Hebrew and not Greek (which we don't), we
don't even know for a fact that Jesus would have spoken the word "Yahweh"
(or anything similar; as opposed to using "Adonai" or something similar).
Introducing "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" into a translation of the Greek text of
the NT seems to me to be a gross violation of any reasonable norms of
Yet, is this any less objectionable than translating ) ADELFOI as "brothers
and sisters" with the NRSV? This is one of my pet peaves regarding an
otherwise good job.
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