From: John Stendahl (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jan 10 2000 - 12:07:28 EST
I just now wrote and posted:
>My translation of "by which" for the Latin is intentionally ambiguous but I
>think the phrase in the Vulgate could possibly also be taken as "in whom,"
>referring back to the one man, or "in which," referring to death...
and then immediately recognized that the latter reading is absurd as a literal
translation, "mors" being feminine and the relative "quo" masculine or neuter.
Sorry about that carelessness. I was in a reverie on the possibilities of the
English and should have kept my eye on the text itself.
The nature and meaning of this "EF'hWi" of course remains an interesting little
pivot in Paul's argument.
Lutheran Church of the Newtons, Newton, MA
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