From: Rod Whitacre (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Jan 27 2000 - 22:11:48 EST
Randall Buth wrote:
Why do people always think that Marcan ideolect is Semitic?
Adverbs are less common in both Hebrew and Aramaic than in Greek.
If you see a pile up of -ws words and/or other adverbs
you are in Greek or strongly reworked-Greek contexts.
Mark 1.35 is human and Marcan.
You would be amazed at how many times gospel studies will call Mark
when he is just convoluted, and call Luke 'Greek', when he is downright
'barbaric'. It seems to relate to first impressions and presuppositions.
Those interested in the subject should consult Elliot C. Maloney, Semitic
Interference in Marcan Syntax, SBL Dissertation Series 51 (Chico: Scholars
Press, 1981). This was a dissertation done at Fordham under Joseph
Fitzmyer. In his preface Maloney also credits the influence of Frank
Gignac. He does not deal with every aspect of the language and adverbs is
one of the items he leaves for a future study. I have not checked to see if
he has since produced such a study.
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