Re: what to do with three adverbs?, ?semitic

From: Steven Craig Miller (
Date: Fri Jan 28 2000 - 07:50:10 EST

<x-flowed>To: Rod Whitacre, et al.,

<< Those interested in the subject should consult Elliot C. Maloney,
Semitic Interference in Marcan Syntax, SBL Dissertation Series 51 (Chico:
Scholars Press, 1981). >>

That is one place to look, another would be "Aramaic Sources of Mark's
Gospel" by Maurice Casey (Cambridge UP, 1998).

Of course, the idea that one (or more) of the gospels might be originally a
translation from an earlier Aramaic or semitic source has been batted
around ever since Christians first started guessing (and creating legends)
as to the origin of these gospels. And when the notion of an Aramaic or
semitic source became heavily challenged, the somewhat safer argument was
put forth that the Hellenistic Greek used had been heavily influenced by
their original semetic tongue, or to use Maloney's phrase, there was
"semitic interference" in the Greek syntax. But all of this is terribly
hard to prove. It seems to me that it would only be prudent for one not to
jump to the conclusion that something in Mark's gospel is due to "semitic
interference" until one has some sort of support for such a notion (and
even then, there will bound to be some challenges).

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
FWIW: I'm neither a clergy-person, nor an academic (and I have no post-grad

B-Greek home page:
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: []
To unsubscribe, forward this message to
To subscribe, send a message to


This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:55 EDT