Date: Sat Feb 05 2000 - 11:43:23 EST
In a message dated 2/5/2000 11:20:41 AM Central Daylight Time, Rleedy@bju.edu
The question is how to view the grammatical function of a nominative
substantive with a first- or second-person verb. For example, I Cor
10:17 has a clause hOI GAR PANTES EK TOU hENOS ARTOU METECOMEN.
Paul has elsewhere stated that he was of the tribe of Benjamin. Benjamin =
BN_YaMIN = southerner. This just proves it. He uses the equivalent of
"Y'all" in the 1st pl. :-) . Just kidding, folks.
Seriously though. Understanding this as the equivalent to "all of us" seems
entirely natural -- so much so that I wouldn't give it a second thought.
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