From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Feb 05 2000 - 13:58:54 EST
At 11:43 AM -0500 2/5/00, Polycarp66@aol.com wrote:
>In a message dated 2/5/2000 11:20:41 AM Central Daylight Time, Rleedy@bju.edu
> The question is how to view the grammatical function of a nominative
> substantive with a first- or second-person verb. For example, I Cor
> 10:17 has a clause hOI GAR PANTES EK TOU hENOS ARTOU METECOMEN.
>Paul has elsewhere stated that he was of the tribe of Benjamin. Benjamin =
>BN_YaMIN = southerner. This just proves it. He uses the equivalent of
>"Y'all" in the 1st pl. :-) . Just kidding, folks.
>Seriously though. Understanding this as the equivalent to "all of us" seems
>entirely natural -- so much so that I wouldn't give it a second thought.
But the question was not what the phrase "means"--that's hardly in doubt;
the question is how hOI PANTES is to be understood grammatically: as an
appositive to the implicit hHMEIS of METECOMEN or if hOI PANTES is itself
the subject of the first-person plural verb. I personally think it is
indeed an appositive in the same sense that an add-on attribute (e.g. hOI
AGAQOI in the phrase ANDRES hOI AGAQOI) is essentially appositive ("men,
those ones who are good").
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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