From: David A Bielby (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Feb 12 2000 - 22:52:52 EST
Matthew 5:48..."ESESQE OUN hUMEIS TELEIOI..."
I'm wondering what the arguments are to translate ESESQE as an IMPERATIVE
instead of as Future Indicative. I noticed the NIV/NAS and NKJ all
handle this differently.
Also, is there any serious merit to interpreting TELEIOI as complete
rather than as perfect morally?
Thanks for input.
'a contemporary church'
Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
email@example.com Phone: 309-827-8292
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [firstname.lastname@example.org] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to email@example.com
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:57 EDT