From: David A Bielby (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Feb 12 2000 - 22:52:52 EST
Matthew 5:48..."ESESQE OUN hUMEIS TELEIOI..."
I'm wondering what the arguments are to translate ESESQE as an IMPERATIVE
instead of as Future Indicative. I noticed the NIV/NAS and NKJ all
handle this differently.
Also, is there any serious merit to interpreting TELEIOI as complete
rather than as perfect morally?
Thanks for input.
'a contemporary church'
Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
firstname.lastname@example.org Phone: 309-827-8292
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