Date: Tue Feb 22 2000 - 15:59:58 EST
In a message dated 2/22/2000 3:26:06 PM Central Daylight Time,
The only thing I have "against it" (to use your phrase) is simply that it
is possible that the English term "utterance" might do a better job of
expressing the author's intent at John 1:1 than the English term "word."
Also, I suspect that, even in other passages where we find the English term
"word," it does not refer to a "word" (in its narrow sense) but is most
commonly used metaphorically. For example, at Mark 2:2, we find: << ... and
he was speaking the word to them >> (Mark 2:2d NRSV). I think it fairly
obvious that here TON LOGON refers to a spoken message. Mark 2:2d might be
better translated as: "... and he was speaking the message to them."
Of course, the rub is that even in English the term "word" does not always
signify a series of letters bounded by spaces on either side. This is true in
every language. To prescriptively limit the use of "word" to a written form
is to disable the language much as those who wish to impose a politically
correct understanding of the word "man" and substitute "person."
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