From: Paul Schmehl (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Feb 23 2000 - 23:10:17 EST
Considering that John's authorship of Revelation has been questioned
by some, and given that it was written later than the Gospel, what
justification would there be for importing possible meanings from
Revelation back into John's gospel?
It seems to me that John very clearly does not refer to a pre-existent
Christ in the prologue, but rather refers to the "word" of God. As
has been discussed here, that carries much depth of meaning depending
upon the viewpoint of the reader, be he Greek, Hebrew, Alexandrian or
To a Hebrew, it would clearly be the same "word" which was spoken of
throughout the OT. To the Greek, or especially to the Alexandrian, it
may well convey some sense of the archangel of the demi-urge. To many
modern Christians it speaks of the pre-existent Christ. But those are
all meanings imported into John's prologue from the reader's biased
point of view.
I think the best we can do here is to attempt to convey the sense of
what LOGOS meant within the culture John was a part of and the
audience he was addressing his gospel to.
Frankly, I like "word", because I understand the nuances of its
meaning. I find many of the proffered substitutes to be stilted and
awkward. I wish I had the perfect substitute to offer, but I do not.
firstname.lastname@example.org (Paul Schmehl)
Technical Support Services Manager
----- Original Message -----
From: "Dan Parker" <email@example.com>
To: "Biblical Greek" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Cc: <email@example.com>; <JoeFriberg@email.msn.com>
Sent: Wednesday, February 23, 2000 9:42 PM
Subject: Re: LOGOS
> > To: Joe A. Friberg,
> > << What John calls LOGOS *refers to* the preincarnate Christ ...
> > That is a theological assertion. No where does John use the phrase
> > "preincarnate Christ." In fact, the Johannine gospel makes it very
> > that John's LOGOS is not Jesus. According to the Johannine Gospel,
> > "I do know him and I keep his word" (Jn 8:55c NRSV).
> > -Steven Craig Miller
> > Alton, Illinois (USA)
> > firstname.lastname@example.org
> Steven, I don't know if I missed much on this thread, for I saw
> many posts on this subject, but it would seem that it IS John's
> that LOGOS is one of the names of God's Son from Rev 19:13 for
> TO ONOMA AUTOU hO LOGOS TOU QEOU. Does'nt it seem that John uses the
> term LOGOS with more than one sense?
> Dan Parker
> B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
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