From: George Goolde (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Feb 23 2000 - 17:14:26 EST
>«In the beginning was the LOGOS, and the LOGOS was with God, and the LOGOS
>You think? This would lead people to ask, „What is this őLOGOS‚?š Then it
>could be understood that the writer meant something deeper than „word.š
I hear the approaching hoofbeats of Wayne Leman riding up to declare that
this is not a good English translation because Logos is not a commonly
understood English word. I do understand, and agree, with that.
If it were decided, however, that LOGOS carries implicit information which
is philosophical as well as linguistic, the use of transliteration
**could** signal a technical term that bears intentional connotation which
lies outside the culture of American (or British) English.
Would such a "translation" then be justified?
Pardon the cross-posting. I deem this to be appropriate for the Bible
Translation, as well as the b-greek, list
George A. Goolde
Professor, Bible and Theology
Southern California Bible College & Seminary
El Cajon, California
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