From: Jason Hare (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 24 2000 - 04:55:43 EST
One thing that is *very* stressed at my college when it comes to
interpreting literature is this: Context is king!!
When we come to the point of attributing intentions to an author, we must
bring into play the entire passage we are dealing with. In John 1 we have
a long prologue that consists of more than just the one verse we are
talking about. We are discussing << EN ARCHi HN hO LOGOS... >> and arguing
if John refered to Jesus (not to border on theology, but just on content)
or something etherial. We have John's own words.
You say this: << God's LOGOS is clearly distinct from Jesus himself. >>
and this: << Repeatedly, the Johannine gospel makes it clear that God's
LOGOS is not Jesus. >>
Yet John (assuming the authorship, for you liberals *w*) says this: << KAI
hO LOGOS SARX EGENETO KAI ESKHNWSEN EN hHMIN, KAI EQEASAMEQA THN DOXHN
AUTOU, DOXAN hWS MONOGENOUS PARA PATROS, PLHRHS CARITOS KAI ALHQEIAS. >>
That is, "And the LOGOS became flesh and 'tabernacled' among us, and we
beheld his/its glory, the glory as of the/an unique-one from the Father,
full of grace and truth." This goes beyond speculation. John wrote that
the LOGOS in flesh is Jesus. (Again, sorry for the theology, but this is
what the text calls for.)
He goes on to say that John (the Baptist) testified about him (v. 15) and
that, while law came through Moses, that same grace and truth "we" beheld
came through Jesus Christ (v. 17).
Again, context is proven to be king and speculation can stop.
***LOGOS in flesh (in John's estimation) equals Jesus.***
Ozark Christian College
On 02/23/00, "Steven Craig Miller <email@example.com>" wrote:
> To: Joe A. Friberg,
> << What John calls LOGOS *refers to* the preincarnate Christ ... >>
> That is a theological assertion. No where does John use the phrase
> "preincarnate Christ." In fact, the Johannine gospel makes it very clear
> that John's LOGOS is not Jesus. According to the Johannine Gospel, Jesus says:
> "I do know him and I keep his word" (Jn 8:55c NRSV).
> The Johannine Jesus does NOT say: "I do know him and I am his logos",
> rather here God's LOGOS is clearly distinct from Jesus himself. According
> to the Johannine Gospel, Jesus says:
> "Whoever does not love me does not keep my words; and the word that you
> hear is not mine, but is from the Father who sent me" (Jn 14:24 NRSV).
> The Johannine Jesus does NOT say: "Whoever does not love me does not keep
> myself the logos; and the logos that you hear is myself, who is sent from
> the Father", rather here God's LOGOS is clearly distinct from Jesus
> himself. According to the Johannine Gospel, Jesus says:
> "I have given them your word" (Jn 17:14a NRSV).
> The Johannine Jesus does NOT say: "I have given them myself, your logos",
> rather here God's LOGOS is clearly distinct from Jesus himself.
> Repeatedly, the Johannine gospel makes it clear that God's LOGOS is not Jesus.
> -Steven Craig Miller
> Alton, Illinois (USA)
> FWIW: I'm neither a clergy-person, nor an academic (and I have no post-grad
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