From: Joel Barnes (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Mar 09 2000 - 19:31:10 EST
This is my first post to the b-greek forum.
My question concerns Hebrews 4:8 which reads as follows in the Authorized
"For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken
of another day"
My question is this: the word "he" is translated "God" in the New
International Version but is left ambiguous in the Authorized Version. Why?
Is it that in the Greek text, the word "he" is a reflexive pronoun
referring back to the subject of verse 7 thereby allowing the translation
"God" instead of "he"?
yours in the Lord,
3rd Year Kinesiology Student
University of New Brunswick
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