From: Hultberg, Alan (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Mar 10 2000 - 12:13:03 EST
The subject of the clause "he would not have spoken afterward about another
day" is not expressed in the Greek text; it is part of the verbal conjugation
(ELALEI = "he spoke").
This section of the discourse in 3:7-4:13 centers around the tension between
the supposed rest provided by Joshua in the conquest of Canaan and Ps 95
(*Today* if you hear his voice do not harden your hearts . . . As I swore in
my wrath, [the exodus generation] shall not enter my rest), spoken by David
long after the conquest. Since either God or David (i.e., not Joshua, as
might be surmised from the syntax of the sentence) spoke Ps 95, either of them
could be the implied subject of ELALEI.
Hope this helps.
From: Joel Barnes on Fri, Mar 10, 2000 2:17 AM
Subject: Hebrews 4:8
To: Biblical Greek
This is my first post to the b-greek forum.
My question concerns Hebrews 4:8 which reads as follows in the Authorized
"For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken
of another day"
My question is this: the word "he" is translated "God" in the New
International Version but is left ambiguous in the Authorized Version. Why?
Is it that in the Greek text, the word "he" is a reflexive pronoun
referring back to the subject of verse 7 thereby allowing the translation
"God" instead of "he"?
yours in the Lord,
3rd Year Kinesiology Student
University of New Brunswick
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