Re: A question from a novice!

From: Dmitriy Reznik (
Date: Sun Mar 19 2000 - 13:31:09 EST

> why are folk hauling out the LXX? its apples and oranges people.
> the LXX
> and the NT are separated from one another by 400 odd years. do you
> imagine,
> any of you, that words continued to be used unaltered in that span
> of
> time???????
> in english usage 50 years ago- 50 MERE years ago- the word gay meant
> nothing
> similar to what it means now. words are used differently in
> different
> periods of time so again, the LXX is totally irrelevant for the
> question
> that was originally raised about NT usage of the term agapaw

Of course, words are used differently in different periods of time. But:
1) It seems that NT authors were under strong influence of LXX which was
their Bible;
2) Maybe the fact that AGAPH is used in NT with certain meaning may be
explained with the context it is used, e.g. G-d's love, the love we must
have etc. Maybe if Paul needed to relate the story of Amnon's love he
would use AGAPE, too.
3) NT authors used normal Greek of their time and not a special b-Greek.
So are there any information about AGAPH's usage ONLY as "unselfish

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