Re: ane What is the lexically proven Aramaic word for Peter

From: Wayne Leman (
Date: Thu Mar 23 2000 - 18:50:13 EST

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> Peter had the name "petros" before joining Christ, Mt 4:18, therefore it
>NOT just another translation of Cephas. If it were then surely in Jn 1:42
>would be written "you shall be called petros which by interpretation is a
> >>
>Did he really? Can we believe that the gospels are historically accurate
>that regard when we don't consider them to be historically accurate in

I don't think there is any reason to infer from the text of Mt 4.18 that
Simon was called PETROS at the time when Jesus called him to follow him. The
relative clause in Mt 4.18 can just as easily be a flashback explanation
which is something used in the gospels all the time. It is writing from the
perspective of the author who already knows what came later, but inserts a
comment earlier in a narrative so that later readers would better be able to
identify who the individual was.

Greek participles (as in LEGOMENON of Mt 4.18) don't behave the same with
regard to tense, as do English verbs (instead, Greek participles typically
"sponge" off a "commanding" verb to reflect its tense--or aspect, as the
case may be).


Wayne Leman
Bible translation site:

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