From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Mar 28 2000 - 07:12:09 EST
At 6:51 AM -0500 3/28/00, Paul F. Evans wrote:
>> I am afraid that my question about 1Cor 1:24 was not quite clear. My
>> question was: does the phrase "G-d's power and G-d's wisdom"
>Pardon my obvious ignorance but what is "G-d" and G-d's. I have seen this
>before but the significance of the designation eludes me.
I first met this the first year I started teaching in a secular university
with a sizable number of orthodox or conservative Jews; I don't know
whether it originated with them, but it is a standard way of observing the
commandment against profanation of God's name, and it has been adopted by
many non-Jews who feel that it is a more reverent way to refer to God.
Which brings up another matter that I've found interesting. It's always
rather bothered me that we use "God" as a proper name rather than a generic
noun, perhaps because if one claims to be a monotheist, the word can only
have one referent, whether or not that word was originally a proper noun.
Evidently QEOS must have come to be considered that way during the Second
Temple period, since it is in later LXX documents that we find the vocative
form QEE, whereas the more common LXX usage is hO QEOS in the nominative
for a vocative.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 firstname.lastname@example.org WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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