From: Bill Ross (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Apr 16 2000 - 23:36:13 EDT
As always, I appreciate the helpful replies.
Part of my question related to the anarthrous PNEUMA, and was well
The other part of my ?? was the term "not yet". These translations all add
By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to
receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not **been given**, since Jesus had
not yet been glorified.
Now this he said about the Spirit, which those who believed in him were to
receive; for as yet the Spirit had not **been given**, because Jesus was not
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should
receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet **given**; because that Jesus was
not yet glorified.)
Whereas these don't:
But this he said concerning the Spirit, which they that believed on him were
about to receive; for [the] Spirit was not yet, because Jesus had not yet
and this he said of the Spirit, which those believing in him were about to
receive; for not yet was the Holy Spirit, because Jesus was not yet
My question is, is there any linguistic reason, or is it entirely
extrapolation based on presumption?
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