From: Carlton Winbery (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri May 12 2000 - 11:41:01 EDT
B. J. Williamson wrote;
>Question about: OTI AUTWN (of them) and OTI AUTOI (they)
>Passage: Matthew 5:3 - 12
>Issue: Is the conspicuous placement of these pronouns significant?
>I noticed in the beatitudes that both blessings related to the Kingdom of
>the Heavens (plural?)
>have AUTWN, but the other beatitudes have AUTOI. Assuming verses 11 and 12
>modify verse 10 (since each contains DIWKW), it seems that the first of the
>and the last one both have AUTWN, making them somewhat žbookendsÓ to the
>AUTOI (I note that the UBS Edition 3 structures it this way also).
>Does this ženclosureÓ have any syntactical implications?
Joe Friberg has responded to this with a structuralists approach. I find
his post very interesting and do not disagree with what he has said.
I want to respond more to the specific questions about Greek grammar.
I do not think that the specific placement of the pronouns is the inportant
thing, but perhaps the entire clause hOTI AUTWN ESTIN hH BASILEIA TWN
OURANWN. I think it brackets the original construction of 1-10 (vs 11 added
by the redactor). The concern of the original structure would then be the
possession of the Kingdom of Heaven (the plural probably for reverence).
AUTWN is in the genitive to show possession. AUTOI is in the nominative in
each sentence because it is subject of the verbs. So there is no
significant meaning to the juxtaposition of the genitive and the
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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