Date: Sat Jun 10 2000 - 13:16:10 EDT
In a message dated 10/06/00 9:43:28 AM, firstname.lastname@example.org writes:
>Hence, this may account for their use of the Greek language being noticeably
>different, since it was not their native language, but they were
>nevertheless proficient in it.
I would not make this assumption, Mark. While I think it evident that Paul
spoke Greek, Peter and John may not have at all, or "just enough to get by."
Furthermore, they may have penned their writings in Aramaic and had someone
else translate it into Greek. The Aramaic version of Peter is MUCH more
readable and has better quotations from the OT than the Greek version. While
the Greek of 1Peter is the best in the NT, the text itself is a bit loose,
compared to the Aramaic.
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:36:28 EDT