Re: Tense of OIDA

Date: Mon Jun 12 2000 - 15:06:22 EDT

In a message dated 6/11/00 3:20:18 PM, writes:

<< This is in fact
not really a PAST so much as a PRESENT counterfactual condition, because
HDEIN, although technically a pluperfect, has the force of an imperfect,
since OIDA functions as a present tense. >>

Could you explain this to me? I'm puzzled by the statement that OIDA
functions as a present tense. Do you mean that OIDA always functions as a
present tense regardless of the form?

David Rollins

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