[b-greek] Re: EGENETO

From: B.J. Williamson (hellen_ic@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jun 21 2000 - 10:30:55 EDT



Concerning what Carl wrote:
So far as John 1:6 is concerned, I would say there's an implicit contrast
SARX EGENETO; I think John means to set off John "the Baptist" from the
incarnate Word by (1) signaling his importance as a divinely-sent emissary
while at the same time (2) sharply distinguishing him from Jesus as Word and
Light. As the treatment of John "the Baptist" later in John shows, there was
evidently a sect attributing messianic status to John, and the evangelist
here is anticipating the denial of John's messianic status that is stated
later in chapter 1 by John himself. I guess what I'm saying here is that I
think EGENETO ANQRWPOS may well be translated "there appeared a man ..." or
"a man came into existence ..." but that I think EGENETO sets up a
deliberate comparison and contrast with EGENETO in the phrase hO LOGOS SARX
EGENETO coming very soon afterwards.

This certainly seems right to me as well. I think that the contrast is
indeed "implicit." What I think is perhaps more "explicit" here is a
contrast between the LOGOS already existing (HN) at this beginning point,
with the LOGOS becoming (EGENETO) flesh.

HN having the idea of "was existing" PRIOR TO the time referenced as
"beginning." While EGENETO indicating that the LOGOS became (EGENETO)
something SUBSEQUENT TO this "beginning."

If I understand your question correctly regarding John's role of
"introducing the Christ," I would say that in verse 7, this is brought out
"explicitly" with hOUTOS HLQEN EIS MARTURIAN. John was sent to bear witness
to the Christ. As well as the next few verses where a distinction between
John and the Christ is specifically being addressed.


B.J. Williamson

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