From: Mark Wilson (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Jun 23 2000 - 22:59:54 EDT
TO DE ANEBH TI ESTIN EI MH hOTI KAI KATEBH EIS TO KATWTERA MERH THS GHS
Once again in my Grammar book (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by Daniel B.
Wallace) I have come across something that makes little to no sense to me.
In a footnote concerning this verse, he sites W. Hall Harris’ article in
BSac where Harris lists as an option for this verse a Genitive of
Apposition, and could indicate that the descent occurred AFTER the ascent.
How can a Genitive of Apposition denote a SUBSEQUENT descent in this verse?
“what does this mean except that subsequently he also descended into the
lower parts of the earth”
Would this translation be acceptable?
The final statement Dr. Wallace makes in this footnote has really confused
me. He feels that if this idea of AFTER is correct (which, he says, “has
much to commend it”), then that would mean the descent is a reference to the
Spirit’s descent on the day of Pentecost.
Is not the subject of Eph. 4:9 Christ? How could the descent of the Spirit
equate to a descent of Christ? I think that the KAI KATEBH (he ALSO
descended) would mean that the same one who ascended ALSO descended.
I have got to believe that this final statement of Wallace’s probably
crosses over into a theological question. I apologize in advance if I have
inadvertently asked a theological question here. In case he was supporting
this contention based somehow on the grammar of this verse, I thought I
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