[b-greek] Re: beginner's question

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Jun 24 2000 - 23:03:10 EDT

on 06/24/00 11:01 AM, wcdjones wrote:

> When that phrase
> occurs in the NT it seems invariably to be hH AGAPH TOU
> QEOU, but when the genitive is used like that, surely it refers to
> God's love, not somebody loving God. Right?

Hello Connie,

I will address only the question quoted above. According to BAGD the
following passages are some possible candidates for the objective genitive
use of TOU QEOU limiting some form of AGAPH (Lk 11:42, Jn 5:42, 2 Th 3:5,
1Jn 2:5,15, 3:17, 4:12, 5:3. I looked at all of these except 2Th 3:5 which I
will leave to a Pauline aficionado.

Each example from Lk, Jn and 1Jn seemed to be ambiguous and have a potential
to be read as love for God or love that finds its source in God or some
other reading. After just a very quick glance 1Jn 3:17 and 5:3 looked like
keepers but it would take some time for serious analysis of this question.
Anyway, I would not rule out the possibility of TOU QEOU functioning as an
objective genitive limiting some form of AGAPH. It is grammatically and
semantically possible.


Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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