From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Jun 29 2000 - 20:17:49 EDT
I am reading a commentary now on Romans Chapters 9-11.
The author states that Paul does not quote exactly from either the LXX or
the MT on some occasions. For example, in one instance, Paul uses a
different Mood than the LXX has.
This comment provoked me to ask these questions:
Do we have today access to the "same" LXX that Paul used? (Perhaps in Paul's
day it was similar to ours. We have thousands of mss. Many of them differ
here and there. How can we know WHICH LXX Paul was using in order to
conclude that he was not quoting verbatim?)
Also, do we have the same MT today that existed in Paul's day?
The more I think about it, I think I have read similar statements in other
commentaries. I guess it has finally caught my attention.
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