From: Dennis Hukel (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jul 12 2000 - 11:58:31 EDT
Lynn brought up a very good point ...
>Perhaps the original English translators were trying
>to avoid confusion with the famous patriarch when they chose James.
If you compare the spelling of names between the OT and the NT in the King James Version you will note many changes:
Rebekah to Rebecca as only one example. I would say that not only were both testaments translated by different groups,
but the consistant spelling of names was not an editorial priority. Names in Hebrew were not inflected, so the
translators just transliterated most of them for the KJV OT. In the New Testament, contemporary spellings of these
names in English society seem to be the rule. But the difference in the forms of the names, as well as their spelling,
is generally much greater for NT persons with the same names.
Lynn's point is probably the reason for another notable spelling difference in the Greek New Testament itself. Any
mention of OT persons by name were usually indeclinable (probably influenced by the Septuagint). While the same name of
a contemporary NT person is declined. Josephus preferred to decline names of OT persons as well as his contemporaries.
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