From: Wayne Leman (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Jul 12 2000 - 14:14:25 EDT
From one of my Bible translation colleagues in another part of the world,
who asks about what the participle EPIKALESAMENOS adverbially modifies in
this verse. Here is her message:
Are there any scholarly opinions out there as to the last segment of
this verse, "having called upon the name of him"
To what does this properly attach.
Is it a prayer, a baptism invocation, or?
Are there any valid translation options other than tagging it onto
the end of the verse?
As I sit here stewing over the options I'd truly like to know
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