From: clayton stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Aug 21 2000 - 12:58:10 EDT
on 08/20/00 4:02 PM, Jon D. Boyd wrote:
> I am interested in what anyone would have to say on 2 Cor. 3:6 in
> relation to monadic expressions. Daniel Wallace says in reference to
> monadic nouns that "A one-of-a-kind noun does not, of course, require
> the article to be definite (e.g., 'sun,' 'earth,' devil,' etc.)" (p. 248
> of "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics"). My question is this: Should
> KAINHS DIAQHKHS be considered a monadic expression?
I have a question about the question. Why do you need the category "monadic
nouns?" Seems like this is just vintage Wallace, let's make a category for
everything. I am not sure that the category "monadic nouns" is very useful
and I would suspect that in light of that the question
>Should KAINHS DIAQHKHS be considered a monadic expression?
may be a question with no answer. A noun does not have to be "monadic" to be
definite without the article. This whole approach of creating a myriad of
subcategories and then defining rules in terms of these categories seems to
me to be a counter productive way to teach greek grammar. The rules are not
meaningful since the categories themselves are illusions.
Perhaps monadic noun is a useful subcategory, but there are zillions of
categories in GGBB which are not. And learning rules using the dubious ones
is a exercise in futility.
This post if for discussion purposes only. The Mdiv students will still need
to learn the GGBB stuff to pass the class so they may want to just ignore my
statements above and learn all the GGBB categories. The can then unlearn
them later on after they are through with seminary.
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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