From: clayton stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Aug 21 2000 - 12:36:34 EDT
on 08/20/00 10:55 PM, A scholar wrote in private.
> why does legetai need to be called 'equative' in order to be eligible for
It doesn't. But I was thinking that it might be functioning like KALEW which
can act like EMEI see for example Matt. 2:23 hOTI NAZWRAIOS KLYQHSETAI. It
would also explain why IOUDAIO, SUROS, AIGUPTIOS are all nominatives.
Thanks for the question. I am sending this to b-greek since it might
generate some useful responses.
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:36:34 EDT