From: Mary Pendergraft (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Sep 05 2000 - 13:49:51 EDT
I think that, happily, there is evidence that it's not a racial slur,
and one place to find that evidence is Frank Snowden's book, _Before
Color Prejudice_. There is strong evidence, on the other hand, that the
Greeks and Romans had cultural prejudices, but in ways different from
modern racist thought.
Denny A Diehl wrote:
> Bart, Denny Diehl here
> > modern racist overtones
> I've wondered the same about Ac 13:1 where
> SUMEWN hO KALOUMENOS NIGER
> Is there enough evidence to suggest that this was
> simply a non pejorative term, much like one might
> be called "Red" if he has red hair; or does it go
> beyond that into some kind of racial slur?
> All the best.
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