From: Kevin W. Woodruff (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Sep 16 2000 - 11:00:34 EDT
Since we are drifting toward a theological rather than a linguistical
argument, I'm going to drop this thread and suggest that others do as well.
At 10:43 PM 9/15/2000 EDT, you wrote:
>In a message dated 09/15/2000 1:30:54 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
> One example that you may want to check is John 12:41. There John tells us
> that Isaiah spoke concerning Christ and saw His glory. If you check the
> passage to which John is referring in Isaiah 6:1-7, he calls Him YHWH
> Sabaoth (the LORD of Hosts) in Isaiah 6:3. >>
>Actually, the glory of the Messiah was seen in Isaiah 53, and is duly noted
>in the peculiar LXX uses of "glory," there.
>Then we have the possibility that the Targum reading of Isaiah 6 (the glory
>of the Shekinah of the Lord) has some influence on John.
>But John 12:41 does not involve a use of the divine name, at all.
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Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div.
Library Director/Reference Librarian
Professor of New Testament Greek
Cierpke Memorial Library
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary
1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404
United States of America
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