From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Sep 21 2000 - 13:43:46 EDT
At 10:26 AM -0700 9/21/00, Francisco Orozco wrote:
>In the context of declaring the revelation of the MUSTHRIW TOU CRISTOU (Eph
>3:4), the text says:
>WS NUN APEKALUFQH TOIS AGIOIS APOSTOLOIS AUTOU KAI PROFHTAIS EN PNEUMATI
>EINAI TA EQNH SUGLHRONOMA KAI SUSSWMA KAI SUMMETOCA THS EPAGGELIAS AUTOU EN
>TW CRISTW DIA TOU EUAGGELIOU (Eph 3:5b, 6)
>My questions are:
>(1) In Rienecker & Rogers it is stated about EINAI "the inf. is used to
>explain the content of the divine revelation" - Is this the Epexegetical use
>of the infinitive?
Not really--that term "epexegetical" when applied to an infinitive I have
preferred to use only when an infinitive clarifies an adjective and is
therefore used adverbially. Here EINAI is more simply the verb of indirect
statement linking the subject of indirect statement, TA EQNH, with the
predicate adjectives SUGKLHRONOMA, SUSSWMA, SUMMETOCA.
>(2) In translation, should we then supply the verb "are" (or some form of
>it) in v.6, so that it reads "that the gentiles [are] fellow heirs and
>fellow members and fellow sharers of His promise in Christ by the Gospel"?
Yes, that is exactly right.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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