From: MICHAEL KINZIE (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Sep 24 2000 - 12:39:25 EDT
Greetings B-Greek List,
I have a question regarding John 2:23.
My question has to do with the plural form of Jerusalem.
I noticed that it is in the dative but why is it plural? I am not having
any luck with my commentaries or
lexicons. I don't believe that there is any theological reason that it
should be plural, or is there?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Michael L. Kinzie (A LONG TIME LURKER IN NEED OF HELP)
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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