From: Harold R. Holmyard III (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Sep 24 2000 - 19:51:00 EDT
>I have a question regarding John 2:23.
>My question has to do with the plural form of Jerusalem.
>I noticed that it is in the dative but why is it plural? I am not having
>any luck with my commentaries or
>lexicons. I don't believe that there is any theological reason that it
>should be plural, or is there?
BAGD suggests that the plurality may be due to the dual form of the name
Jerusalem in Hebrew. But BAGD gives several resources to check on the form
of the name, among them Bl-D sec. 56, 1, 4 app.; Mlt.-H. 147f; Ramsay, Exp.
7th ser. III '07, 110ff, 414f.
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