From: Jim West (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Sep 24 2000 - 20:44:25 EDT
At 11:39 AM 9/24/00 -0500, you wrote:
>Greetings B-Greek List,
>I have a question regarding John 2:23.
>My question has to do with the plural form of Jerusalem.
>I noticed that it is in the dative but why is it plural? I am not having
>any luck with my commentaries or
>lexicons. I don't believe that there is any theological reason that it
>should be plural, or is there?
because in hebrew it is yerushalayim.... a dual form. rendered in greek in
the plural because there is no dual in greek.
its that simple.
"I like to eat lettuce, but I always eat only the heart; in my opinion the
leaves are for the pigs" S. Kierkegaard.
Jim West, ThD
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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