From: Heath Curtis (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Nov 06 2000 - 11:21:10 EST
Is there any concensus out there about the antecedent of hWi in I Pt 1:6?
I've considered taking the relative as neuter thus leaving the possibilities
as the preceeding infinitive APOKALUFQHNAI or verses 3-5 as a whole. Or
perhaps it's masculine with the antecedent being QEOS or KAIRWi ESXATWi.
Any responses to any of these four options, or proposals for other options
Thanks is advance,
Heath R. Curtis
MDiv Student Concordia Seminary
MA Student Washington Univ. St. Louis
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