From: Jim West (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Nov 06 2000 - 20:51:41 EST
At 08:22 PM 11/6/00 -0500, you wrote:
>The translators of the LXX used the term "husband" (ANHR), in Prov.
>31:31, instead of "deeds," or "works," which I understand is the term
>used in all Hebrew texts. I'm curious to hear theories as to how they
>made that error. I am told that there is no similarity between the
>Hebrew terms for husband and works, so it seems unlikely that one would
>have been confused with the other. Any thoughts?
there isnt a shred of textual evidence that i can find in either the hebrew
text or the LXX which justifies the LXX's change here. none of the
commentaries i have note the variant and no one says a word about it.
this means either
a) everyone already knows the answer to the question except us ted;
b) no one knows the answer and thus they avoid the question.
i vote b- but thats just foolish pride on my part.
"If life gives you a bowl of lemons, go find an annoying guy
with paper cuts. Make it worthwhile!"
- Jack Handey
Jim West, ThD
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