From: Rob Somers (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Nov 25 2000 - 19:20:10 EST
I have a question about the meaning of this passage in James [5:14]
From what I can see in the UBS GNT 4th Ed.,
ASTHENEI TIS EV hUMIN "The one who is sick among you...."
is not a question, but rather a statement -- especially as there is no
punctuation [;] that would indicate this being a question (Although there is
in my Zondervan Parallel Interlinear-- go Zondervan! ...not...) Anyway, it
seems to me that there are two things going on here -- I just want to know
if what I am thinking is correct or not -- please tell me if I am wrong. :)
1 -- That if no Christian ever gets sick, then why would James bring the
matter up, whether or not it is actually a question, and
2 -- If it is not a question, James would appear to be making a strong
statement about Christians getting ill -- that it *does* indeed happen...
Any thoughts or opinions on this would be much appreciated
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