[b-greek] Re: question about james 5:14

From: Rob Somers (robsomers@golden.net)
Date: Sun Nov 26 2000 - 22:58:32 EST

----- Original Message -----
From: "Steven R. Lo Vullo" <doulos@chorus.net>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Sunday, November 26, 2000 10:56 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: question about james 5:14

> > Steve,
> >
> > Does this mean then that if 5:14 has no marker for a first class
> > sentence, then it would be inappropriate to use the EI in 5:14
> > (If EI is introduced, that would make this a first classs condition,
> > it not?) By the way, all of this is *totally* tweaking my brain to the
> > limit! :)
> Hi Rob,
> No, it certainly would have been appropriate for James to use EI in 5.14
> he had wished to express a first class condition. But that is just my
> he didn't do so, which is one of the reasons (along with others I have
> expressed) I think the clause is interrogative. James 1.5, where EI is
> with the present indicative in the protasis and the imperative in the
> apodosis, could be translated something like this: "Supposing (just for
> sake of argument) one of you lacks wisdom, let him/her ask God." It is the
> absence of EI in 5.14 that I think precludes us from taking it
> (syntactically) as conditional. Of course, semantically speaking, asking
> question "Is anyone among you sick?" is conditional in the sense that
> doesn't assume by it that anyone *is* actually sick. The following
> imperative is to be followed *if* someone is sick. Remember, the initial
> question prompting our discussion was whether ASQENEI TIS EN hUMIN should
> punctuated with a question mark (;) or, as UBS has it, a comma. All I'm
> saying is that I think the interrogative view is more compelling
> syntactically, and that the more accurate translation (as found in most
> versions) reflects this.
> Steve

Thanks Steve -- I kind of thought that was what you were getting at. Makes
good sense to me.


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