[b-greek] Re: question about james 5:14

From: Rob Somers (robsomers@golden.net)
Date: Sun Nov 26 2000 - 21:13:25 EST

----- Original Message -----
From: "Steven R. Lo Vullo" <doulos@chorus.net>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Sunday, November 26, 2000 6:37 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: question about james 5:14

> The word "suppose" expresses the semantic equivalent to a first class
> condition, which would be introduced by the conditional conjunction EI.
> that when James wishes to express this type of idea he in fact uses EI
> the present indicative followed by the imperative: EI DE TIS hUMWN
> SOFIAS, AITEITW, K.T.L. (1.5) We find the same in 3.14. TIS as an
> pronoun with the indicative in 1.5 is very naturally preceded by EI to
> express a supposition for the sake of argument (which, contrary to popular
> belief, is really what the first class condition is all about), while in
> 5.13-14 we have no such marker.


Does this mean then that if 5:14 has no marker for a first class conditional
sentence, then it would be inappropriate to use the EI in 5:14 altogether?
(If EI is introduced, that would make this a first classs condition, would
it not?) By the way, all of this is *totally* tweaking my brain to the
limit! :)

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