[b-greek] Re: John 20:28 - English used to interpret Greek?

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Mon Feb 05 2001 - 17:20:45 EST


Dan wrote:
I can easily apply Sharp's words in defense of his rule to the defense
of Smart's Rule. [If Sharp can capitalize "Rule" so can I!]

My concern is not so much with the use of a capital letter, but whether a
proposed rule has been subjected to the review of general scholarship.

Why I think "general scholarship review" is critical is, at least, attempt
to remove bias, as well as to give credence to the proposed rule. I would
say that someone ought to package this rule up in a nice format, send it to
25 to 50 Greek Scholars, and then let's see what happens.

For example, as a rookie, a quick glance at the passages offered in support
of Sharp's rule did not involve grammatical parallels to me, but remember I
am a rookie (in other words, don't include me in 25 to 50 scholars).
Parallels should include singular descriptive words (I would guess); and
they certainly should be in parallel contexts, such as "direct address"
(since that is the use in John 20). That is, we are told the Thomas is
addressing Jesus.

All is not lost though for those of a particular theological bent should
Sharp's rule not withstand scholarly review. Why? Well, to me, one could
simply say that Thomas was addressing the Father :o ) [Now, if both words
are referring to the same individual, simply by-pass Jesus and go straight
to the Father.... problem solved!]

My thoughts,

Mark Wilson
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