From: Mark Wilson (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Feb 05 2001 - 17:34:56 EST
My hypothesis is that when the adjective precedes the head noun, then the
semantic content of the adjective is relatively more prominent than the
semantic content of the noun.
How could this be disputed? It seems to me that this is not subject to being
falsified. In other words, how could we some 2000 years later conclude that
your proposition is true?
I realize that many teach the idea of EMPHASIS based on word order, but I
have always wondered how one could ever prove or disprove that. And
statements that can be neither proved nor disproved are not overly helpful
if we are trying to go beyond "vague speculation."
Could someone help me understand this idea of EMPHASIS a little better?
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