From: Kenneth Litwak (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Feb 19 2001 - 20:40:39 EST
I have a couple of questions about Luke 4.
given that verse numbers are totally irrelevant, I
want to know if there is a dependable way to decide if
we should construe this to mean that Jesus was being
led by the Spirit for forty days or that Jesus was
being tempted by the Devil for 40 days. Ho would we
Second, any thoughts about how to decide whether EN
TW PNEUMATI shold be "in the sprit" or "By the
Ihsous de plhrhs pneumatos agiou upestreyen apo tou
Iordanou kai hgeto en tw pneumati en th erhmw|
2 hmeras tesserakonta peirazomenos upo tou diabolou
Also, in Luke 4:9
Hgagen de auton eis Ierousalhm kai esthsen evpi. to.
pterugion tou ierou
It seems to me that for clarity's sake there could be
a second auton after esthsen. Since there isn't, is
there any way to know syntactically, like from the
meaning of (ISTHMI here, that it is the Devil who
stood on the pinnacle of the temple or that the devil
stood/placed/set Jesus on the pinnacle of he temple.
If I was going to say that X put Y somewhere, I'd use
TIQHMI, not (ISTHMI.
As an aside, I normally use Bibleworks for
translation these days, instead of going to B AGD.
Does anyone have thoghts as to the accuracy of say,
Friberg's lexicon renderings vs. Liddell and Scoot?
The latter may be more accurate for Attic Greek but I
dion't know if it's better for Koine. The former is
focused on the NT, but may take insufficient notice of
other Greek literature.
As another aside, if we were to compare NT Greek to
a "standard Helenistic Greek text" to see how the
syntax, vocabulary, and such compared, what would be a
good text? I'm suggesting here that comparing NT
Greek to Aristotle, for example, would not be an
appropriate comparison for judging the normal syntax
of the first century A.D. any more than Milton would
be an appropriate guide to good English syntax in
University of Bristol
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