[b-greek] Negation again

From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Tue Feb 20 2001 - 10:34:52 EST

 I'm still a bit confused about negation in Greek, I was hoping to read
a lot of messages about it in more detail but people seem to have
stopped discussing it. I realise that Philippians 2:6 was a bad choice
as (assuming hARPAGMON means robbery, etc.) there is no difference in
meaning whether the noun, verb or entire clause is being negated. Can
someone give a few examples from the New Testament where the verb is
negated but the negative particle comes before something else, and it
clearly makes a difference what is being negated?
 I supposed that if you've got NOT VERB NOUN and the noun is put at the
beginning that it would go BEFORE the 'not' (NOUN NOT VERB instead of
NOT NOUN VERB), otherwise it would just cause confusion and people might
think the entire NOT NOUN was moved to the beginning (meaning VERB NOT
NOUN). Is this right or am I still so dull? Also being discussed at the
moment is the value of word-order in Greek, does the order of the words
make a difference in the use of the negative particle?
 Again thank you for the general information about negation, but it
needs expanding a bit.

 Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)

Keith Thompson

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