[b-greek] addtn'l questions on Matt. 28:19-20

From: Steve Godfrey (sgodfrey@irk.ru)
Date: Wed Feb 28 2001 - 08:57:43 EST

To interpret this passage, is it not important to recognize that there are 3
participles interacting with the finite verb? I've always taken the
participles as subordinate to the main verb, something like this:

    aor psv ptc deponent
aor act impv (the finite verb)
    pres act ptc
    pres act ptc

Might the following interperative points then be justified:
1) Jesus' central concern is clearly on MAKING DISCIPLES
2) One cannot make disciples until one has gone to where those potential
disciples reside
3) Jesus conceived of discipleship in 3 steps: going, baptizing, and

Further, why the first ptc is aorist, given that the 2nd and 3rd are
present? Might it be because Matthew wanted to portray going to a place
once and then engaging in the process of baptism and teaching in that place
over a more extended period? And/or did he simply wish to make the
baptizing and teaching steps more prominent in light of the notion that
going was a given?


Steve Godfrey
Irkutsk, Siberia

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