From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Mar 09 2001 - 10:52:55 EST
At 9:10 AM -0800 3/9/01, email@example.com wrote:
>On Fri, 09 Mar 2001 14:51:26 -0000 "Mark Wilson" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
>> Matt 28:19a
>> POREUQENTES OUN MAQHTEUSATE PANTA TA EQNH
>> What is the grammatical sense here that leads
>> most translations to add KAI? (I do NOT get the
>> sense myself of two separate instructions.)
>King James translators apparently did not appreciate the participial
>nuance of attendant circumstance that modern exegetes recognize. Just
>how or when this appreciation came about is a good question.
>Anyhow, an attendant circumstantial participle gives the POREUQENTES the
>same force as the main verb, here the imperatival MAQHTEUSATE.
I rather doubt that the KJV translators were wanting in astuteness to
understand and deal with a simple idiomatic structure such as this. One of
the tricks of translation into English one learns fairly early in the game
is that, where Greek tends subordinate antecedent acts in a sequence by use
of a preceding aorist participle, English prefers coodinated verbs.
Here's an example chosen more or less at random Mk 6:17 AUTOS GAR hO
hHRWiDHS APOSTEILAS EKRATHSEN TON IWANNHN KAI EDHSEN AUTON EN FULAKHi ...
This the KJV renders as " For Herod himself had sent forth and laid hold
upon John, and bound him in prison ... "
Greek simply tends to subordinate verbal notions to what's key or central;
English verbal notions tend to be strung together in "run-on" sentences.
That is, of course, an over-generalization, but I think it's no fundamental
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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