Date: Fri Mar 23 2001 - 01:58:53 EST
<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=2>I have a question about the translation of the end of 1 John 1:5.
<BR>... KAI SKOTIA EN AUTWi OUK ESTIN OUDEMIA
<BR>I am a rank amateur with Greek, but the usual translation "...and in him is
<BR>no darkness at all" (or some variation) seems awkward. I was wondering if
<BR>rendering this as "... because of him, darkness is not meaningless" is a
<BR>possibility. This would seem to fit John's apparent rejection of the
<BR>thinking of some gnostics that sin of the flesh is unimportant. But I may
<BR>just be guilty of bad translation or engaging in eisegesis.
<BR>Are there other examples of this construction that I might look at that would
<BR>help clarify this for me?
<BR>Thanks in advance,
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