From: Iver Larsen (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Mar 24 2001 - 02:57:23 EST
> Luke 22:45 hEUREN KOIMWMENOUS AUTOUS 'he found them SLEEPING!'
> I would like to ask why you consider KOIMWMENOUS AUTOUS as an NP.
Mainly because it agrees with AUTOUS in number, gender and case. It cannot refer
to the implied subject (Jesus) and it is not subordinated to the finite verb.
> It is based on the basic principle:
> (1) The modifiers of the head noun contributes
> to determining the referent of the NP.
> (2) Predicates explain the referent of the NP, which is
> already determined.
I am not familiar with such a principle, either from general linguistics or
Greek grammar. Can you explain the reason and rationale for it? It seems to me
that the principle uses a pragmatic criteria to determine a syntactical
question, and that, to me, is questionable. I can see that if you use such a
principle, your analysis would be different.
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