[b-greek] Re: Mt. 24:28

From: Ed Siefert (sieferted@hotmail.com)
Date: Thu Apr 19 2001 - 14:15:01 EDT

 On the subject of Matthew 24:28, I mentioned a comparative use
of the words, PTOMA and SOMA (Luke 17:37). A subsequent letter from Carl
Conrad pointed out a broader usage of SOMA in Hellenistic linguistics.
   In response, the New Testament was written either by Jews, or in the
synoptic Gospels, from Jewish accounts. At least in the more prophetic
writings--Revelation, the Olivet discourse, quotes of Jesus, and Paul’s
instructions--we see attempts at expressing Jewish idiom in the Greek
tongue: their concern was word application to make a point; thus the
intended difference between the two subject verses. This view is
especially true of Revelation, which was written to bolster the Christian
movement in Israel; thus the application of the most historic event in
Jewish history: the Babylonian exile.
   In reviewing New Testament Greek, we must look beyond the standards of
Greek practice, such as where SOMA was often used to refer to the “body”
of a deceased, to find the intended meaning of Hebraic terms expressed in
Greek. That is why I applaud Ted Mann for his quest to find a Jewish basis
for word usage in the New Testament.
   Ed Siefert Costa Mesa, CA, USA

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